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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
During a preflight briefing at a flight school in the United States, a sport pilot candidate is preparing for a solo cross-country flight. The candidate expresses concern about arriving at the destination in time to return the aircraft for another student’s scheduled lesson. The instructor asks the candidate to categorize this specific concern using the PAVE risk management model.
Correct
Correct: The External Pressures category of the PAVE model specifically addresses influences that can compromise a pilot’s judgment, such as the desire to return an aircraft on time for another user. By recognizing that the schedule is creating a sense of urgency, the pilot is identifying a classic external pressure that often leads to risky decision-making.
Incorrect: Relying solely on the Pilot-in-Command element would involve evaluating the pilot’s physical health, fatigue levels, or legal currency rather than outside scheduling obligations. The strategy of evaluating the Environment would center on the actual weather conditions, terrain, or airport lighting rather than the social or professional reason for the trip. Choosing to classify this as an Aircraft issue would be incorrect because that category pertains to the mechanical state, equipment, and performance capabilities of the airplane itself.
Takeaway: The PAVE model helps pilots identify risks by categorizing them into Pilot, Aircraft, Environment, and External Pressures during preflight planning.
Incorrect
Correct: The External Pressures category of the PAVE model specifically addresses influences that can compromise a pilot’s judgment, such as the desire to return an aircraft on time for another user. By recognizing that the schedule is creating a sense of urgency, the pilot is identifying a classic external pressure that often leads to risky decision-making.
Incorrect: Relying solely on the Pilot-in-Command element would involve evaluating the pilot’s physical health, fatigue levels, or legal currency rather than outside scheduling obligations. The strategy of evaluating the Environment would center on the actual weather conditions, terrain, or airport lighting rather than the social or professional reason for the trip. Choosing to classify this as an Aircraft issue would be incorrect because that category pertains to the mechanical state, equipment, and performance capabilities of the airplane itself.
Takeaway: The PAVE model helps pilots identify risks by categorizing them into Pilot, Aircraft, Environment, and External Pressures during preflight planning.
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Question 2 of 20
2. Question
While operating a Light-Sport Aircraft in choppy air conditions, a pilot considers the structural limitations of the airframe. Which statement best describes the relationship between airspeed, load factor, and structural safety during these conditions?
Correct
Correct: Design maneuvering speed, or Va, is the maximum speed at which the pilot can apply full, abrupt control travel without overstressing the airframe. At this speed or slower, the aircraft will aerodynamically stall before the structural load limit is reached. This stall acts as a natural safety mechanism that sheds the excess load before the wings or other components suffer permanent deformation or failure.
Incorrect: The strategy of increasing airspeed to penetrate turbulence is dangerous because the load factor imposed by a gust increases significantly as airspeed increases. Simply assuming the limit load factor only applies during specific phases like a climb ignores the reality that G-loads can be exceeded in any attitude through turbulence or abrupt control inputs. Opting to move controls abruptly at any speed below the never-exceed speed is incorrect because structural damage can occur well below that speed if the load factor limit is surpassed. Relying on the green arc for abrupt maneuvers is a misconception because the green arc represents the normal operating range, not the range for full control deflection.
Takeaway: Maneuvering speed protects the airframe by ensuring the aircraft stalls before reaching its structural load limit during abrupt maneuvers or turbulence.
Incorrect
Correct: Design maneuvering speed, or Va, is the maximum speed at which the pilot can apply full, abrupt control travel without overstressing the airframe. At this speed or slower, the aircraft will aerodynamically stall before the structural load limit is reached. This stall acts as a natural safety mechanism that sheds the excess load before the wings or other components suffer permanent deformation or failure.
Incorrect: The strategy of increasing airspeed to penetrate turbulence is dangerous because the load factor imposed by a gust increases significantly as airspeed increases. Simply assuming the limit load factor only applies during specific phases like a climb ignores the reality that G-loads can be exceeded in any attitude through turbulence or abrupt control inputs. Opting to move controls abruptly at any speed below the never-exceed speed is incorrect because structural damage can occur well below that speed if the load factor limit is surpassed. Relying on the green arc for abrupt maneuvers is a misconception because the green arc represents the normal operating range, not the range for full control deflection.
Takeaway: Maneuvering speed protects the airframe by ensuring the aircraft stalls before reaching its structural load limit during abrupt maneuvers or turbulence.
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Question 3 of 20
3. Question
A sport pilot is operating a Light Sport Aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller. During the transition from a steady climb to level cruise flight at a constant power setting, how does the propeller’s efficiency typically change as the airspeed increases?
Correct
Correct: For a fixed-pitch propeller, efficiency is a function of the relationship between forward velocity and rotational speed. As the aircraft accelerates from climb speed toward cruise speed, the angle of attack of the propeller blades decreases from a high, less efficient angle toward the specific angle for which the propeller was designed, resulting in an increase in aerodynamic efficiency.
Incorrect: The idea that efficiency decreases with speed fails to account for the fact that at low airspeeds, the propeller blades are often operating at an inefficiently high angle of attack. Assuming efficiency remains constant overlooks the dynamic nature of the relative wind, which changes the blade’s effective angle of attack regardless of the fixed geometric pitch. Believing that efficiency is highest at zero airspeed confuses static thrust with efficiency; since efficiency is the ratio of useful work out to energy in, and no work is done if the aircraft is not moving, efficiency is actually zero at a standstill.
Takeaway: Fixed-pitch propeller efficiency varies with airspeed because forward movement changes the blade’s angle of attack relative to the oncoming air.
Incorrect
Correct: For a fixed-pitch propeller, efficiency is a function of the relationship between forward velocity and rotational speed. As the aircraft accelerates from climb speed toward cruise speed, the angle of attack of the propeller blades decreases from a high, less efficient angle toward the specific angle for which the propeller was designed, resulting in an increase in aerodynamic efficiency.
Incorrect: The idea that efficiency decreases with speed fails to account for the fact that at low airspeeds, the propeller blades are often operating at an inefficiently high angle of attack. Assuming efficiency remains constant overlooks the dynamic nature of the relative wind, which changes the blade’s effective angle of attack regardless of the fixed geometric pitch. Believing that efficiency is highest at zero airspeed confuses static thrust with efficiency; since efficiency is the ratio of useful work out to energy in, and no work is done if the aircraft is not moving, efficiency is actually zero at a standstill.
Takeaway: Fixed-pitch propeller efficiency varies with airspeed because forward movement changes the blade’s angle of attack relative to the oncoming air.
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Question 4 of 20
4. Question
A sport pilot is evaluating the flight characteristics of a light-sport aircraft during a steady-state climb at the manufacturer’s recommended airspeed. The pilot observes a significant nose-heavy condition that requires continuous back-pressure on the control stick to maintain the desired pitch attitude. To neutralize this control force and reduce pilot fatigue, which action should the pilot take?
Correct
Correct: The elevator trim tab is a secondary control surface that, when adjusted downward, creates an upward aerodynamic force on the trailing edge of the elevator. This force maintains the elevator in a raised position without requiring the pilot to provide constant manual input on the control stick, effectively balancing the aircraft for the specific airspeed and power setting.
Incorrect
Correct: The elevator trim tab is a secondary control surface that, when adjusted downward, creates an upward aerodynamic force on the trailing edge of the elevator. This force maintains the elevator in a raised position without requiring the pilot to provide constant manual input on the control stick, effectively balancing the aircraft for the specific airspeed and power setting.
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Question 5 of 20
5. Question
A sport pilot is preparing for a cross-country flight departing from an airport located at a high elevation on a warm afternoon. How does the decrease in atmospheric pressure at higher altitudes specifically affect the performance of the aircraft?
Correct
Correct: In the United States aviation system, it is fundamental that atmospheric pressure and air density are directly proportional. As a pilot climbs to higher altitudes, the pressure decreases, leading to less dense air. This reduction in density means there are fewer air molecules available to create lift over the wing surfaces and fewer oxygen molecules for the engine’s combustion process, resulting in degraded performance.
Incorrect: The strategy of assuming lower pressure increases air density is scientifically incorrect because density and pressure decrease together as altitude increases. Focusing only on a reduction in required indicated airspeed is a common misconception; while groundspeed will be higher, the indicated airspeed required for the wings to produce lift remains constant. Opting to believe that thinner air improves cooling is dangerous because less dense air is actually less effective at carrying heat away from engine components, often leading to higher operating temperatures.
Takeaway: Lower atmospheric pressure reduces air density, which simultaneously decreases lift production and engine power output during flight operations.
Incorrect
Correct: In the United States aviation system, it is fundamental that atmospheric pressure and air density are directly proportional. As a pilot climbs to higher altitudes, the pressure decreases, leading to less dense air. This reduction in density means there are fewer air molecules available to create lift over the wing surfaces and fewer oxygen molecules for the engine’s combustion process, resulting in degraded performance.
Incorrect: The strategy of assuming lower pressure increases air density is scientifically incorrect because density and pressure decrease together as altitude increases. Focusing only on a reduction in required indicated airspeed is a common misconception; while groundspeed will be higher, the indicated airspeed required for the wings to produce lift remains constant. Opting to believe that thinner air improves cooling is dangerous because less dense air is actually less effective at carrying heat away from engine components, often leading to higher operating temperatures.
Takeaway: Lower atmospheric pressure reduces air density, which simultaneously decreases lift production and engine power output during flight operations.
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Question 6 of 20
6. Question
A sport pilot is performing a pre-flight inspection on a Light Sport Aircraft (LSA) powered by a four-stroke reciprocating engine. While checking the oil level, the pilot explains to a student how the engine generates the necessary torque to turn the propeller. Which sequence of events describes the standard operating cycle for this type of powerplant?
Correct
Correct: The four-stroke reciprocating engine operates on the Otto cycle, which involves four distinct strokes of the piston to complete one power cycle: intake, compression, power, and exhaust.
Incorrect: Focusing on a continuous combustion process describes the operation of a turbine engine rather than a reciprocating piston engine. Choosing to describe a two-stroke cycle is incorrect because it combines the intake and exhaust phases into fewer piston movements than the four-stroke model. Opting for a description of a rotary engine where the cylinders rotate around the crankshaft describes an obsolete engine design not typical of modern light-sport aircraft.
Incorrect
Correct: The four-stroke reciprocating engine operates on the Otto cycle, which involves four distinct strokes of the piston to complete one power cycle: intake, compression, power, and exhaust.
Incorrect: Focusing on a continuous combustion process describes the operation of a turbine engine rather than a reciprocating piston engine. Choosing to describe a two-stroke cycle is incorrect because it combines the intake and exhaust phases into fewer piston movements than the four-stroke model. Opting for a description of a rotary engine where the cylinders rotate around the crankshaft describes an obsolete engine design not typical of modern light-sport aircraft.
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Question 7 of 20
7. Question
A sport pilot is planning a cross-country flight and notices a significant discrepancy between the surface wind direction reported by the local METAR and the winds aloft forecast at 4,500 feet MSL. While the surface winds are blowing at an angle across the isobars, the winds at the cruising altitude are flowing nearly parallel to them. What physical phenomenon primarily accounts for this change in wind behavior as the aircraft climbs away from the terrain?
Correct
Correct: At the surface, friction from the earth’s terrain slows the movement of air. Because the Coriolis force is proportional to wind speed, this reduction in speed weakens the Coriolis effect. Consequently, the pressure gradient force becomes more dominant, pulling the air across the isobars toward lower pressure. At higher altitudes, away from the influence of surface friction, the wind speed increases and the Coriolis force balances the pressure gradient force, resulting in winds that flow parallel to the isobars.
Incorrect: Attributing the change to adiabatic lapse rates and magnetic alignment is incorrect because wind direction is governed by pressure and rotation rather than magnetic poles. Suggesting that centrifugal force is the dominant factor at the surface misidentifies the role of friction in the atmospheric boundary layer. Claiming that terrestrial radiation forces surface winds to blow perpendicular to the jet stream is a misunderstanding of how localized heating interacts with large-scale atmospheric circulation.
Takeaway: Surface friction reduces wind speed and the Coriolis force, causing surface winds to cross isobars toward lower pressure unlike winds aloft.
Incorrect
Correct: At the surface, friction from the earth’s terrain slows the movement of air. Because the Coriolis force is proportional to wind speed, this reduction in speed weakens the Coriolis effect. Consequently, the pressure gradient force becomes more dominant, pulling the air across the isobars toward lower pressure. At higher altitudes, away from the influence of surface friction, the wind speed increases and the Coriolis force balances the pressure gradient force, resulting in winds that flow parallel to the isobars.
Incorrect: Attributing the change to adiabatic lapse rates and magnetic alignment is incorrect because wind direction is governed by pressure and rotation rather than magnetic poles. Suggesting that centrifugal force is the dominant factor at the surface misidentifies the role of friction in the atmospheric boundary layer. Claiming that terrestrial radiation forces surface winds to blow perpendicular to the jet stream is a misunderstanding of how localized heating interacts with large-scale atmospheric circulation.
Takeaway: Surface friction reduces wind speed and the Coriolis force, causing surface winds to cross isobars toward lower pressure unlike winds aloft.
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Question 8 of 20
8. Question
A sport pilot is conducting a preflight inspection on a light-sport aircraft equipped with a high-performance wing. The pilot notices that the leading edges are covered in a layer of dried mud from a previous landing on a soft field. If the pilot attempts to fly without cleaning the wing, how will the characteristics of the airflow over the airfoil be altered?
Correct
Correct: Laminar flow is extremely sensitive to surface smoothness, and any roughness like dried mud triggers a premature transition to turbulent flow. This forward shift of the transition point increases skin friction drag because turbulent air involves more internal mixing and exerts more shear stress on the wing surface than laminar air.
Incorrect
Correct: Laminar flow is extremely sensitive to surface smoothness, and any roughness like dried mud triggers a premature transition to turbulent flow. This forward shift of the transition point increases skin friction drag because turbulent air involves more internal mixing and exerts more shear stress on the wing surface than laminar air.
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Question 9 of 20
9. Question
A sport pilot is cruising in a light-sport aircraft at a steady 4,500 feet MSL. The pilot has established a constant power setting and a level pitch attitude, resulting in a stable airspeed with no climb or descent. In this state of steady, unaccelerated flight, what is the relationship between the four fundamental aerodynamic forces?
Correct
Correct: In steady-state, unaccelerated flight, the aircraft exists in a state of equilibrium where all opposing forces are balanced. According to Newton’s laws, when there is no acceleration, the sum of the forces must be zero, meaning lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.
Incorrect: The strategy of assuming lift must exceed weight to maintain altitude is incorrect because any excess lift would result in a climb. Relying solely on the idea that thrust must be greater than drag to maintain speed is a misconception as excess thrust would cause acceleration. Opting for the view that vertical forces must be positive to prevent altitude loss describes an accelerating system rather than one in equilibrium.
Incorrect
Correct: In steady-state, unaccelerated flight, the aircraft exists in a state of equilibrium where all opposing forces are balanced. According to Newton’s laws, when there is no acceleration, the sum of the forces must be zero, meaning lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.
Incorrect: The strategy of assuming lift must exceed weight to maintain altitude is incorrect because any excess lift would result in a climb. Relying solely on the idea that thrust must be greater than drag to maintain speed is a misconception as excess thrust would cause acceleration. Opting for the view that vertical forces must be positive to prevent altitude loss describes an accelerating system rather than one in equilibrium.
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Question 10 of 20
10. Question
During a cruise flight in a Light Sport Aircraft equipped with a carbureted engine and a fixed-pitch propeller, the pilot observes a gradual decrease in engine RPM without any change in the throttle setting. This is soon followed by engine roughness and a further loss of power, even though the outside air temperature is 65 degrees Fahrenheit with high humidity. Which condition is most likely occurring, and what is the proper troubleshooting step?
Correct
Correct: Carburetor ice can form in temperatures as high as 70 degrees Fahrenheit when the relative humidity is high. In an aircraft with a fixed-pitch propeller, the first indication of carburetor icing is a gradual loss of RPM, followed by engine roughness as the ice restricts the venturi. The standard corrective action is to apply full carburetor heat, which may initially cause more roughness as the ice melts and passes through the engine before performance restores.
Incorrect: The strategy of addressing detonation is incorrect because detonation is usually caused by using the wrong fuel grade or engine overheating and is characterized by high cylinder head temperatures rather than a gradual RPM drop. Simply conducting a mixture leaning procedure for fouled plugs is inappropriate because spark plug fouling typically occurs during prolonged idling or low-power operations and does not cause a steady decline in cruise RPM. Opting for fuel pump activation to clear a suspected obstruction is a secondary response that does not address the specific atmospheric conditions and symptoms associated with venturi cooling in a carburetor.
Takeaway: A gradual RPM drop in humid conditions indicates carburetor ice, requiring the immediate application of full carburetor heat to restore power.
Incorrect
Correct: Carburetor ice can form in temperatures as high as 70 degrees Fahrenheit when the relative humidity is high. In an aircraft with a fixed-pitch propeller, the first indication of carburetor icing is a gradual loss of RPM, followed by engine roughness as the ice restricts the venturi. The standard corrective action is to apply full carburetor heat, which may initially cause more roughness as the ice melts and passes through the engine before performance restores.
Incorrect: The strategy of addressing detonation is incorrect because detonation is usually caused by using the wrong fuel grade or engine overheating and is characterized by high cylinder head temperatures rather than a gradual RPM drop. Simply conducting a mixture leaning procedure for fouled plugs is inappropriate because spark plug fouling typically occurs during prolonged idling or low-power operations and does not cause a steady decline in cruise RPM. Opting for fuel pump activation to clear a suspected obstruction is a secondary response that does not address the specific atmospheric conditions and symptoms associated with venturi cooling in a carburetor.
Takeaway: A gradual RPM drop in humid conditions indicates carburetor ice, requiring the immediate application of full carburetor heat to restore power.
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Question 11 of 20
11. Question
While conducting a pre-flight run-up in a Light-Sport Aircraft, a pilot moves the ignition switch from the BOTH position to the RIGHT position. The engine immediately ceases to run. After moving the switch back to BOTH, the engine restarts and runs smoothly. What is the most likely cause of this engine behavior?
Correct
Correct: In a dual ignition system, the ignition switch works by grounding the magneto that is not being used. When the pilot selects the RIGHT position, the left magneto is grounded (deactivated). If the engine stops, it indicates that the right magneto is not firing. Since the engine runs on the BOTH position, the left magneto is clearly functional, but the right magneto is incapable of sustaining engine operation on its own due to a mechanical or electrical failure within that specific circuit.
Incorrect: The strategy of attributing the failure to a broken P-lead is incorrect because a disconnected P-lead prevents a magneto from being grounded, which would result in the magneto remaining ‘hot’ and the engine continuing to run even if the switch was turned to OFF. Focusing on fouled spark plugs on the left side is logically inconsistent because the engine stops when the left side is grounded, implying the left side was the only one working. Opting for a battery-related explanation is a fundamental misunderstanding of aircraft systems, as magnetos are self-contained, engine-driven units that generate their own electricity independently of the battery or alternator.
Takeaway: An engine stoppage during a magneto check indicates the selected magneto is inoperative because the functional magneto has been grounded.
Incorrect
Correct: In a dual ignition system, the ignition switch works by grounding the magneto that is not being used. When the pilot selects the RIGHT position, the left magneto is grounded (deactivated). If the engine stops, it indicates that the right magneto is not firing. Since the engine runs on the BOTH position, the left magneto is clearly functional, but the right magneto is incapable of sustaining engine operation on its own due to a mechanical or electrical failure within that specific circuit.
Incorrect: The strategy of attributing the failure to a broken P-lead is incorrect because a disconnected P-lead prevents a magneto from being grounded, which would result in the magneto remaining ‘hot’ and the engine continuing to run even if the switch was turned to OFF. Focusing on fouled spark plugs on the left side is logically inconsistent because the engine stops when the left side is grounded, implying the left side was the only one working. Opting for a battery-related explanation is a fundamental misunderstanding of aircraft systems, as magnetos are self-contained, engine-driven units that generate their own electricity independently of the battery or alternator.
Takeaway: An engine stoppage during a magneto check indicates the selected magneto is inoperative because the functional magneto has been grounded.
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Question 12 of 20
12. Question
A sport pilot is transitioning from a steady climb to level cruise flight in a light-sport aircraft. As the aircraft accelerates to cruise speed, the pilot finds it necessary to maintain constant forward pressure on the control stick to prevent the nose from rising. To fly more efficiently and reduce fatigue, the pilot decides to utilize the elevator trim system. What is the primary function of the trim tab in this scenario?
Correct
Correct: The trim tab is a small auxiliary surface on the trailing edge of the elevator. When moved, it creates a small aerodynamic force that deflects the main control surface to a position that balances the aircraft at a specific airspeed and attitude. This allows the pilot to release pressure on the controls while the aircraft maintains its flight path.
Incorrect: Viewing the trim system as a backup mechanical linkage is incorrect because trim tabs are secondary surfaces and cannot provide the full range of motion or authority required for primary flight control. The idea that trim modifies stabilizer camber to increase lift capacity for center of gravity range expansion is a misconception of its aerodynamic purpose. While trim is used to maintain a specific airspeed, describing it as a mechanism to adjust airspeed without power changes ignores the fundamental relationship between power, pitch, and performance.
Takeaway: Trim tabs relieve the pilot of control pressure by aerodynamically holding primary control surfaces in the desired position.
Incorrect
Correct: The trim tab is a small auxiliary surface on the trailing edge of the elevator. When moved, it creates a small aerodynamic force that deflects the main control surface to a position that balances the aircraft at a specific airspeed and attitude. This allows the pilot to release pressure on the controls while the aircraft maintains its flight path.
Incorrect: Viewing the trim system as a backup mechanical linkage is incorrect because trim tabs are secondary surfaces and cannot provide the full range of motion or authority required for primary flight control. The idea that trim modifies stabilizer camber to increase lift capacity for center of gravity range expansion is a misconception of its aerodynamic purpose. While trim is used to maintain a specific airspeed, describing it as a mechanism to adjust airspeed without power changes ignores the fundamental relationship between power, pitch, and performance.
Takeaway: Trim tabs relieve the pilot of control pressure by aerodynamically holding primary control surfaces in the desired position.
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Question 13 of 20
13. Question
While evaluating weather conditions for a local flight, a pilot observes the formation of cumulus clouds with significant vertical development. Which flight environment is most likely associated with these observations?
Correct
Correct: Cumulus clouds form in unstable air where lifting action creates vertical development. This process generates convective currents, leading to the turbulence commonly experienced by sport pilots flying beneath or near these formations.
Incorrect: The strategy of expecting smooth air and steady rain is more characteristic of stratiform clouds in a stable atmosphere. Focusing only on high-altitude wispy clouds describes cirrus formations, which lack the vertical development of cumulus. Choosing to associate these clouds with fog and stable layers ignores the fundamental requirement of instability for cumulus growth.
Takeaway: Cumulus clouds with vertical development signal atmospheric instability and the likelihood of encountering turbulence during flight.
Incorrect
Correct: Cumulus clouds form in unstable air where lifting action creates vertical development. This process generates convective currents, leading to the turbulence commonly experienced by sport pilots flying beneath or near these formations.
Incorrect: The strategy of expecting smooth air and steady rain is more characteristic of stratiform clouds in a stable atmosphere. Focusing only on high-altitude wispy clouds describes cirrus formations, which lack the vertical development of cumulus. Choosing to associate these clouds with fog and stable layers ignores the fundamental requirement of instability for cumulus growth.
Takeaway: Cumulus clouds with vertical development signal atmospheric instability and the likelihood of encountering turbulence during flight.
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Question 14 of 20
14. Question
During a pre-flight inspection of a Light Sport Aircraft (LSA) at a municipal airport in Ohio, a pilot notices a small puddle of red fluid near the left main gear. During the subsequent taxi to the run-up area, the pilot observes that the left brake pedal feels “spongy” and requires more travel than the right pedal to achieve the same stopping force. Based on these observations, what is the most likely mechanical cause and the associated risk for the upcoming flight?
Correct
Correct: Air entering the hydraulic system through a leak is the most likely cause because air is compressible, unlike hydraulic fluid. This compression creates a spongy pedal feel and can lead to a total loss of braking authority on the affected side. Such a failure significantly increases the risk of a runway excursion during landing.
Incorrect
Correct: Air entering the hydraulic system through a leak is the most likely cause because air is compressible, unlike hydraulic fluid. This compression creates a spongy pedal feel and can lead to a total loss of braking authority on the affected side. Such a failure significantly increases the risk of a runway excursion during landing.
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Question 15 of 20
15. Question
While climbing through 2,500 feet MSL in a Light-Sport Aircraft, a pilot observes the airspeed indicator needle slowly dropping to zero. The altimeter and vertical speed indicator continue to provide normal readings consistent with the climb. Which condition most likely explains this specific instrument failure?
Correct
Correct: When the ram air inlet of the pitot tube is blocked but the drain hole remains open, the pressure within the pitot line vents to the atmosphere through the drain. This results in the airspeed indicator sensing no difference between the pitot and static pressures, causing the needle to drop to zero regardless of the actual forward speed of the aircraft.
Incorrect: Attributing the failure to a blocked static port is incorrect because such a blockage would cause the altimeter to freeze and the vertical speed indicator to return to zero. The strategy of assuming both the ram air inlet and drain hole are blocked is flawed because trapped pressure would cause the airspeed indicator to increase as the aircraft climbs, acting like an altimeter rather than dropping to zero. Focusing on environmental factors like a tailwind is incorrect because the airspeed indicator measures the pressure of the air through which the aircraft moves, which would not drop to zero while the aircraft maintains flight.
Takeaway: A blocked pitot ram air inlet with an open drain hole causes the airspeed indicator to drop to zero.
Incorrect
Correct: When the ram air inlet of the pitot tube is blocked but the drain hole remains open, the pressure within the pitot line vents to the atmosphere through the drain. This results in the airspeed indicator sensing no difference between the pitot and static pressures, causing the needle to drop to zero regardless of the actual forward speed of the aircraft.
Incorrect: Attributing the failure to a blocked static port is incorrect because such a blockage would cause the altimeter to freeze and the vertical speed indicator to return to zero. The strategy of assuming both the ram air inlet and drain hole are blocked is flawed because trapped pressure would cause the airspeed indicator to increase as the aircraft climbs, acting like an altimeter rather than dropping to zero. Focusing on environmental factors like a tailwind is incorrect because the airspeed indicator measures the pressure of the air through which the aircraft moves, which would not drop to zero while the aircraft maintains flight.
Takeaway: A blocked pitot ram air inlet with an open drain hole causes the airspeed indicator to drop to zero.
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Question 16 of 20
16. Question
During a flight review in a light-sport aircraft, a pilot inadvertently enters a spin after an uncoordinated power-on stall. According to standard FAA recovery procedures, which set of control inputs should the pilot prioritize to regain controlled flight?
Correct
Correct: The FAA-recommended recovery procedure involves reducing power to idle to decrease the nose-up pitch and rotation rate. Neutralizing ailerons ensures the wings stall more uniformly, while full opposite rudder counters the autorotation. Moving the elevator forward reduces the angle of attack below the critical point, breaking the stall and allowing the aircraft to transition back to level flight.
Incorrect
Correct: The FAA-recommended recovery procedure involves reducing power to idle to decrease the nose-up pitch and rotation rate. Neutralizing ailerons ensures the wings stall more uniformly, while full opposite rudder counters the autorotation. Moving the elevator forward reduces the angle of attack below the critical point, breaking the stall and allowing the aircraft to transition back to level flight.
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Question 17 of 20
17. Question
A Sport Pilot is planning a 75-nautical-mile cross-country flight in a light-sport aircraft from a rural airstrip to a regional airport. While performing the preflight action required under 14 CFR Part 91.103, the pilot must gather specific information because the flight is not in the vicinity of the departure airport. Which set of information is explicitly required for this cross-country flight under FAA regulations?
Correct
Correct: According to 14 CFR 91.103, for any flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight, specifically including weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, and alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
Incorrect: The strategy of requiring a telephone-only briefing is incorrect because pilots may use various FAA-approved automated sources to gather weather data. Focusing on the maintenance history of fuel farms or specific fuel pricing is a business consideration rather than a regulatory preflight requirement for flight safety. Choosing to require written confirmation for parking from an airport manager is a logistical preference and is not mandated by the FAA for cross-country flight planning.
Takeaway: FAA regulations require pilots to evaluate weather, fuel, and landing alternatives for all flights conducted away from the departure airport’s vicinity.
Incorrect
Correct: According to 14 CFR 91.103, for any flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight, specifically including weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, and alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
Incorrect: The strategy of requiring a telephone-only briefing is incorrect because pilots may use various FAA-approved automated sources to gather weather data. Focusing on the maintenance history of fuel farms or specific fuel pricing is a business consideration rather than a regulatory preflight requirement for flight safety. Choosing to require written confirmation for parking from an airport manager is a logistical preference and is not mandated by the FAA for cross-country flight planning.
Takeaway: FAA regulations require pilots to evaluate weather, fuel, and landing alternatives for all flights conducted away from the departure airport’s vicinity.
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Question 18 of 20
18. Question
You are conducting a cross-country flight in a Light-Sport Aircraft on a warm afternoon. While transitioning from a climb to a high-speed cruise, you observe that the power required to maintain level flight increases much more rapidly than the incremental gains in airspeed. This phenomenon is primarily due to the aerodynamic resistance caused by the aircraft’s shape and skin friction as it moves through the air. Which statement accurately describes the relationship between airspeed and this type of resistance?
Correct
Correct: Parasite drag is the resistance of the air as the aircraft passes through it and is not related to the production of lift. It includes form drag, skin friction, and interference drag. According to aerodynamic principles, parasite drag increases as the square of the velocity. This means that if the airspeed is doubled, the parasite drag increases fourfold, which explains why significantly more power is needed to achieve even small increases in speed at the high end of the aircraft’s performance envelope.
Incorrect: The theory that parasite drag is inversely proportional to the square of the airspeed actually describes induced drag, which is the byproduct of lift. Claiming that parasite drag remains constant is inaccurate because this force is directly tied to the velocity of the airflow over the airframe surfaces. Suggesting that parasite drag is primarily influenced by the angle of attack confuses it with induced drag, which is the component of drag that changes based on the lift being generated at different angles of attack.
Takeaway: Parasite drag increases with the square of the airspeed, requiring disproportionately more power to maintain higher speeds in flight.
Incorrect
Correct: Parasite drag is the resistance of the air as the aircraft passes through it and is not related to the production of lift. It includes form drag, skin friction, and interference drag. According to aerodynamic principles, parasite drag increases as the square of the velocity. This means that if the airspeed is doubled, the parasite drag increases fourfold, which explains why significantly more power is needed to achieve even small increases in speed at the high end of the aircraft’s performance envelope.
Incorrect: The theory that parasite drag is inversely proportional to the square of the airspeed actually describes induced drag, which is the byproduct of lift. Claiming that parasite drag remains constant is inaccurate because this force is directly tied to the velocity of the airflow over the airframe surfaces. Suggesting that parasite drag is primarily influenced by the angle of attack confuses it with induced drag, which is the component of drag that changes based on the lift being generated at different angles of attack.
Takeaway: Parasite drag increases with the square of the airspeed, requiring disproportionately more power to maintain higher speeds in flight.
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Question 19 of 20
19. Question
While cruising at 3,500 feet MSL in a light-sport aircraft, a pilot observes the oil pressure gauge slowly trending downward toward the lower green arc limit. Shortly after, the oil temperature gauge begins a steady climb toward the red line. Given these specific instrument indications, what is the most likely cause and the appropriate pilot action?
Correct
Correct: A simultaneous decrease in oil pressure and an increase in oil temperature is a critical indication of a lubrication system failure, such as a major oil leak or a failing oil pump. Because the oil serves both to lubricate and cool the internal engine components, these diverging trends suggest that the engine is no longer being protected, making a total power loss imminent and requiring an immediate precautionary landing.
Incorrect: Attributing the symptoms to a stuck relief valve is incorrect because while a stuck valve might cause low pressure, it would not typically cause a rapid and significant rise in oil temperature. Suggesting a lean mixture as the primary cause is a common misconception; while a lean mixture increases cylinder head and exhaust gas temperatures, it does not cause a primary drop in oil pressure. Assuming high oil viscosity is the issue is logically inconsistent because high viscosity usually results in higher-than-normal oil pressure readings, especially during the initial stages of flight.
Takeaway: Diverging oil pressure and temperature readings indicate a critical engine lubrication failure that necessitates an immediate precautionary landing.
Incorrect
Correct: A simultaneous decrease in oil pressure and an increase in oil temperature is a critical indication of a lubrication system failure, such as a major oil leak or a failing oil pump. Because the oil serves both to lubricate and cool the internal engine components, these diverging trends suggest that the engine is no longer being protected, making a total power loss imminent and requiring an immediate precautionary landing.
Incorrect: Attributing the symptoms to a stuck relief valve is incorrect because while a stuck valve might cause low pressure, it would not typically cause a rapid and significant rise in oil temperature. Suggesting a lean mixture as the primary cause is a common misconception; while a lean mixture increases cylinder head and exhaust gas temperatures, it does not cause a primary drop in oil pressure. Assuming high oil viscosity is the issue is logically inconsistent because high viscosity usually results in higher-than-normal oil pressure readings, especially during the initial stages of flight.
Takeaway: Diverging oil pressure and temperature readings indicate a critical engine lubrication failure that necessitates an immediate precautionary landing.
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Question 20 of 20
20. Question
A sport pilot is planning a departure from a high-elevation mountain airstrip on an unusually warm afternoon. The pilot notes that the density altitude is significantly higher than the actual field elevation. During the takeoff roll and initial climb, how will these specific atmospheric conditions affect the generation of lift for the light sport aircraft?
Correct
Correct: Lift is directly proportional to air density as defined in the lift equation. When air density decreases due to high temperatures or high elevation, there are fewer air molecules flowing over the wing surfaces. To compensate for this lack of density and generate the same amount of lift force, the aircraft must move through the air at a higher true airspeed.
Incorrect: The theory that lift increases in thin air due to reduced resistance is incorrect because lift production relies on the mass of the air being displaced by the airfoil. Choosing to use a lower angle of attack is counterproductive because thinner air requires either a higher speed or a higher angle of attack to maintain the same lift. Relying on the idea that indicated airspeed for takeoff changes is a common misconception; while the true airspeed increases, the indicated airspeed at which the wings generate sufficient lift remains nearly constant because the airspeed indicator is affected by air density in the same way as the wings.
Takeaway: Higher density altitude reduces lift production, requiring a higher true airspeed to achieve the necessary lift for flight.
Incorrect
Correct: Lift is directly proportional to air density as defined in the lift equation. When air density decreases due to high temperatures or high elevation, there are fewer air molecules flowing over the wing surfaces. To compensate for this lack of density and generate the same amount of lift force, the aircraft must move through the air at a higher true airspeed.
Incorrect: The theory that lift increases in thin air due to reduced resistance is incorrect because lift production relies on the mass of the air being displaced by the airfoil. Choosing to use a lower angle of attack is counterproductive because thinner air requires either a higher speed or a higher angle of attack to maintain the same lift. Relying on the idea that indicated airspeed for takeoff changes is a common misconception; while the true airspeed increases, the indicated airspeed at which the wings generate sufficient lift remains nearly constant because the airspeed indicator is affected by air density in the same way as the wings.
Takeaway: Higher density altitude reduces lift production, requiring a higher true airspeed to achieve the necessary lift for flight.